Q1. ____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party.
a. Risk exploitation
b. Risk sharing
c. Risk enhancement
d. Risk acceptance
Q2. A project manager can chart the probability and impact of risks on a ____.
a. risk ranking chart
b. risk probability table
c. probability/impact matrix
d. risk assessment matrix
Q3. Many people cite research that says in a face-to-face interaction, ____ percent of communication is through body language.
a. 10
b. 25
c. 58
d. 85
Q4. ___ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance.
a. Developing the human resource plan
b. Developing the project team
c. Acquiring the project team
d. Managing the project team
Q5. The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable.
a. project team
b. CEO
c. project manager
d. customer
Q6. Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake.
a. risk-seeking
b. risk-averse
c. risk-neutral
d. risk-indifferent
Q7. Since information technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to have ____ meetings.
a. long, frequent
b. short, infrequent
c. short, frequent
d. long, infrequent
Q8. Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented.
a. “Expressives”
b. “Drivers”
c. “Analyticals”
d. “Amiables”
Q9. _____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total.
a. Actual estimates
b. Parametric estimates
c. Bottom-up estimates
d. Analogous estimates
Q10 – ___ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party.
a. Risk avoidance
b. Risk acceptance
c. Risk transference
d. Risk mitigation
Q11. _____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes.
a. Risk avoidance
b. Risk acceptance
c. Risk transference
d. Risk mitigation
Q12. The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, and project document updates.
a. quality control
b. quality planning
c. quality assurance
d. quality certification
Q13. ____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget.
a. cost budgeting
b. cost estimating
c. cost control
d. project cost management
Q14. ____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time.
a. Progress reports
b. Status reports
c. Forecasts
d. Updates
Q15. _______ are often more effective, particularly for sensitive information.
a. Electronic communications
b. Short face-to-face meetings
c. Telephone conversations
d. Long face-to-face meetings
Q16. The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date.
a. CPI
b. SV
c. EAC
d. SPI
Q17. People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility.
a. Theory W
b. Theory X
c. Theory Y
d. Theory Z
Q18. KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that the most frequently cited benefit from software risk management practices is to ____.
a. prevent surprises
b. improve ability to negotiate
c. meet customer commitments
d. anticipate/avoid problems
Q19. The communications management plan can be part of the team ____.
a. WBS
b. contract
c. plan
d. guidelines
Q20. Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ____ person.
a. risk-seeking
b. risk-averse
c. risk-neutral
d. risk-indifferent
Q21. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs.
a. CPFF
b. CPIF
c. CPPC
d. CPPF
Q22. Many practitioners define project success as ____.
a. meeting project scope goals
b. meeting times goals
c. satisfying the customer/sponsor
d. meeting cost goals
Q23. ____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle.
a. Financial managers
b. Project managers
c. Budget managers
d. System managers
Q24. ____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes.
a. SQFD
b. CMM
c. SQMMI
d. CMMI
Q25. A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on.
a. analogous cost estimate
b. parametric model
c. bottom-up estimate
d. reverse analysis
Q26. In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean.
a. 95.5
b. 99.0
c. 99.7
d. 99.9
Q27. People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others.
a. affiliation
b. advancement
c. power
d. achievement
Q28. The Standish Group’s CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects ranged from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004.
a. 28
b. 43
c. 56
d. 73
Q29. Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____.
a. work time
b. technical planning
c. uptime
d. downtime
Q30. ____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool, and in addition to identifying risks, it maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project.
a. Risk factor analysis
b. Probability/impact matrices or charts
c. Risk registering
d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
Q31. In the MBTI, the ____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information.
a. Extrovert/Introvert
b. Thinking/Feeling
c. Judgment/Perception
d. Sensation/Intuition
Q32. According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only method that is “excellent” for encouraging creative thinking.
a. phone call
b. e-mail
c. meeting
d. Web Site
Q33 . A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers.
a. RFQ
b. RFP
c. COW
d. SOW
Q34. A certainty factor of 1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty.
a. 75
b. 95
c. 96
d. 99
Q35. Juran’s final step to quality improvement is ____.
a. organize to reach the goals (establish a quality council, identify problems, select projects, appoint teams, designate facilitators)
b. keep score
c. report progress
d. maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company
Q36. According to the guideline governing ____, many meetings are most effective with the minimum number of participants possible.
a. determining if a meeting can be avoided
b. determining who should attend the meeting
c. defining the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting
d. running the meeting professionally
Q37. KLCI Research Group’s 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the participants said they had procedures in place to identify and assess risk.
a. 75
b. 87
c. 97
d. 99
Q38. A(n) ____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain.
a. decision tree
b. EMV
c. Monte Carlo analysis
d. watch list
Q39. Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____.
a. EV
b. AC
c. PV
d. RP
Q40. Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes.
a. compromise
b. smoothing
c. confrontation
d. forcing
Q41. “Organizations can gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using outside resources.” refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing.
a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs
b. Provide flexibility
c. Access skills and technologies
d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business.
Q42. As the number of people involved in a project ___, the complexity of communications ____.
a. increases, decreases
b. decreases, increases
c. increases, stays constant
d. increases, increases
Q43. Some items discussed in a(n) ____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members’ experiences.
a. final project report
b. design document
c. audit report
d. lessons-learned report
Q44. ____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project
a. Developing the human resource plan
b. Developing the project team
c. Acquiring the project team
d. Managing the project team
Q45. ___ issues cause the most conflicts over the project life cycle.
a. Project priority
b. Staffing
c. Cost
d. Schedule
Q46. One of ____ ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.
a. Deming’s
b. Crosby’s
c. Juran’s
d. Ishikawa’s
Q47. ___ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project.
a. Determining the budget
b. Consolidation of costs
c. Controlling costs
d. Estimating costs
Q48. In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process.
a. performing
b. norming
c. forming
d. storming
Q49. ___ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period.
a. Progress reports
b. Status reports
c. Forecasts
d. Updates
Q50. With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus.
a. CPFF
b. CPIF
c. CPPC
d. CPPF
