QUESTION 1
Sentencing is done with five basic goals in mind: Retribution, Incapacitation, Deterrence, Rehabilitation, and ___________________?
A.
Out of Spite
B.
Fairness
C.
Restoration
D.
High conviction rates
QUESTION 2
Incapacitation is the use of imprisonment or other means to reduce the likelihood an offender is capable of committing future offenses.
True
False
QUESTION 3
Match the criminal sentencing term with its definition:
An attempt to reduce/stop crime by changing the attitude toward crime as a whole and the overall behavior of offenders.
An attempt by the criminal justice system to “restore” the victim to the state they were before the crime occurred.
The use of imprisonment or other means to reduce the likelihood an offender is capable of committing future offenses.
The goal of criminal sentencing that seeks to restrain criminal behavior because they fear the punishment if caught.
Holds offenders personally responsible; they get their “just deserts.”
A model of criminal punishment that encourages rehabilitation via the use of general and relatively unspecific sentences.
A model of criminal punishment where an offender is given a fixed sentence that may be reduced by good behavior while serving his/her time or for worked performed while serving their sentence.
A.
Retribution
B.
Incapacitation
C.
Determinate Sentencing
D.
Deterrence
E.
Rehabilitation
F.
Restoration
G.
Indeterminate Sentencing
QUESTION 4
The Comprehensive Crime Control Act of 1984 did what?
A.
Limit federal judges’ discretion
B.
Reduce disparity
C.
Promote consistency and uniformity
D.
Increase fairness and equity
E.
All the above
QUESTION 5
What effect did United States v. Booker, 543 U.S. 220 (2005) have on the courts?
A.
Invalidated any state sentencing schema that allowed judges, rather than juries, to determine any factor that increases a criminal sentence, except for prior convictions.
B.
Held a Career Criminal could be adjudged and sentenced all in a single hearing.
C.
Held the Sixth Amendment right to jury trial requires only facts admitted by a defendant or proved beyond a reasonable doubt may be used to calculate a sentence. The maximum sentence a judge may impose can be based upon those facts.
D.
Held judges cannot accept plea bargains that would have resulted in sentences lower than the minimum required by law for a particular type of offense.
QUESTION 6
A Presentence Investigation Report (PSI) is?
A.
An investigative report into the history of a convicted person
B.
Contained in the police officer’s criminal report of the crime.
C.
No longer used by the courts due to Tennessee v. Garner.
D.
Are only done when requested by the defense.
QUESTION 7
Restorative programs are characterized by which key value:
A.
Encounter: Create opportunities for victims, offenders and community members to meet to discuss the crime and its aftermath.
B.
Amends: Expect offenders to take steps to repair the harm they have caused.
C.
Reintegration: Seek to restore victims and offenders to whole, contributing members of society.
D.
Inclusion: Allow parties with a stake in a specific crime to participate in its resolution.
E.
All are key values of Restorative Justice.
QUESTION 8
Day fines are fines that are levied proportionally according to the severity of the crime and the ___________________________________?
A.
Strength of the criminal case.
B.
The amount of money spent on the criminal investigation.
C.
How much money the victim demands.
D.
Financial resources of the offender
QUESTION 9
Which are characteristics of parole?
A.
Subjects generally avoid prison time, is a sentencing decision made by a judge and subject must abide by conditions or risk revocation.
B.
Offenders must spend time in prison before release, it is an administrative decision made by paroling authority and subject must abide by conditions or risk revocation.
C.
None are characteristics of parole.
D.
Both are characteristics of parole.
QUESTION 10
The Samson v. California, 547 U.S. 843 (2006) held?
A.
Probation Officers are not prohibited from conducting a warrantless search of a person who is subject to a parole search condition, even when there is no suspicion of criminal wrongdoing and the sole reason for the search is because the person is on parole.
B.
Probation officers may conduct searches of a probationer’s residence without a search warrant or probable cause.
C.
Probation cannot be revoked for failure to pay a fine and make restitution if it could not be shown the defendant was responsible for the failure…alternative forms of punishment must be considered before imposing a prison sentence.
D.
Police officers are not prohibited from conducting a warrantless search of a person who is subject to a parole search condition, even when there is no suspicion of criminal wrongdoing and the sole reason for the search is because the person is on parole.
QUESTION 11
GRIFFIN v. WISCONSIN, 483 U.S. 868 (1987) held?
A.
Probation officers may conduct searches of a probationer’s residence without a search warrant or probable cause.
B.
Expanded the search authority normally reserved for probation and parole officers to police officers under certain circumstances.
C.
Police officers may conduct searches of a probationer’s residence without a search warrant or probable cause.
D.
All the above
QUESTION 12
Currently the Federal Government and ________ (how many) States allow Capital punishment as a punishment option?
A.
All 50 states have capital punishment.
B.
22 states have capital punishment.
C.
38 states have capital punishment.
D.
Only the Federal Government allows capital punishment.
QUESTION 13
What court case put a moratorium on the death penalty statute on the basis it allowed a jury unguided discretion in the imposition of a capital sentence?
A.
Kemmler, 136 U. S. 436 (1890).
B.
Furman v. Georgia, 408 U.S. 238 (1972).
C.
Gregg v. Georgia 428 U.S. 153 (1976).
D.
Atkins v. Virginia, 536 U.S. 304 (2002).
QUESTION 14
What court case developed guidelines for jurors to consider before the court could impose the death penalty? In this decision, the court upheld the two-step procedural requirements for the application of the death penalty as a punishment.
A.
Furman v. Georgia, 408 U.S. 238 (1972)
B.
Ford v. Wainwright, 477 U.S. 399 (1986)
C.
Roper v. Simmons, 543 U.S. 551 (2005)
D.
Gregg v. Georgia 428 U.S. 153 (1976)
QUESTION 15
Which prison era featured group workshops and silence enforced by whipping?
A.
Auburn Prison (also called the New York system).
B.
Pennsylvania System.
C.
Philadelphia Penitentiary.
D.
Industrial Age.
QUESTION 16
The Wickersham Commission made three recommendations for prison reform:
A.
Prisons classify inmates by security risk.
B.
Prisons return to a program of rehabilitation, education, and vocational training.
C.
Prisons use Behavior therapy, Chemotherapy and Neurosurgery on prisoners.
D.
Proposed an expansion of the prison parole system.
E.
A, B, and D are correct
QUESTION 17
Approximately how many state and federal prisons are there in the United States?
A.
115 State prisons and 1,325 Federal prisons.
B.
2,325 State prisons and 215 Federal prisons.
C.
1,325 State prisons and 115 Federal prisons.
D.
6,325 State prisons and 1,115 Federal prisons.
QUESTION 18
______________________ sentencing an offender according to the risk they pose to the community, is a strategy to reduce prison population?
A.
Directive incapacitation
B.
Selective incapacitation
C.
Permanent incapacitation
D.
All the above.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following “Classification” processes determines which custody level an inmate is assigned?
A.
Offense history
B.
Assessed dangerousness
C.
Gang affiliation
D.
Perceived risk of escape
E.
All the above
QUESTION 20
In which of the following cities was the first Federal Prison opened?
A.
Leavenworth, Kansas.
B.
Atlanta, Georgia.
C.
Alderson, West Virginia.
D.
Springfield, Missouri.
QUESTION 21
The Federal Government has one Administrative Maximum (ADMAX) prison designated to house extremely high-risk inmates. Where is it located?
A.
San Francisco, California.
B.
Florence, Colorado.
C.
Leavenworth, Kansas.
D.
Beaumont, Texas.
QUESTION 22
In a __________________housing unit, correctional officers can interact constantly with inmates to manage their behavior. These jails are different from the traditional jail in that they use a system of pods or modular self-contained housing areas, have a more open environment, often use Plexiglas instead of thick walls to separate areas, normally provide more traditional, softer furniture and some utilize “rooms” instead of cells.
A.
Intermittent surveillance
B.
Remote surveillance
C.
Both A and B are correct.
D.
Direct supervision
QUESTION 23
Studies have shown private prisons can:
A.
Reduces overcrowding, lowers operating expenses, and helps avoid lawsuits.
B.
Increases overcrowding; but lowers operating expenses, and helps avoid lawsuits
C.
Reduces overcrowding; helps avoid lawsuits, but have higher operating expenses.
D.
Normally raises lawsuits, but reduces overcrowding and lowers operating expenses.
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is NOT an element of the United Nations classification of a Transactional crime?
A.
It is committed in more than one country.
B.
It is committed in one country but a substantial part of its preparation, planning, direction, or control takes place in another country.
C.
It is committed in one country but involves an organized criminal group that engages in criminal activities in more than one country.
D.
It is committed in one country but no effects in any another country.
E.
It is committed in one country but has substantial effects in another country.
QUESTION 25
_____________________ is the largest and most Inclusive International body in the world.
A.
Chinese Parliament.
B.
The United Nations (U.N.).
C.
Supreme Court of the U.S.
D.
INTERPOL.
QUESTION 26
INTERPOL does NOT have field investigators, does NOT have arrest or search and seizure powers, and DOES facilitate police cooperation as a means of combating international crime?
True
False
QUESTION 27
Which organization has the stated SPECIFIC mission to improve the effectiveness and cooperation of law enforcement agencies within EU member states, and the prevention and combating of terrorism, drug trafficking, trafficking of radioactive and nuclear substances, money laundering, trafficking in human beings, and other serious forms of international organized crime?
A.
International Criminal Court (ICC).
B.
The United Nations (U.N.).
C.
INTERPOL.
D.
Europol.
QUESTION 28
For many years the international community has tried to agree upon the definition of terrorism. Recently, which of the following definitions was accepted by the international community as the official definition of terrorism?
A.
“A violent act, or act dangerous to human life, in violation of the criminal laws of the United States or of any state to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives.”
B.
“The unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives”
C.
“The calculated use of unlawful violence or threat of unlawful violence to inculcate fear; intended to coerce or to intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious, or ideological.”
D.
All are actual definitions of terrorism, but there are no internationally accepted definitions of terrorism.
E.
Definition A is the only internationally accepted definition of terrorism.
QUESTION 29
Six Characteristics of a terrorist were discussed. Which of the following was NOT one of those characteristics?
A.
No Rules-No moral limitations on the type or degree of violence that terrorists can use.
B.
Do not kill designated Innocents-Respecter of persons who are on the side of the “cause”.
C.
Economy-Kill one, frighten 10,000
D.
Publicity-Terrorists seek publicity, and publicity encourages terrorism.
E.
Meaning-Terrorist acts give meaning and significance to the lives of terrorists.
F.
No Clarity-Beyond the immediate aim of destructive acts, the long-term goals of terrorists are likely to be poorly conceived or impossible to implement. Terrorism that succeeds escalates.
QUESTION 30
Match the terrorist motivation with the correct definition:
Those with the goal of separation from existing entities through independence, political autonomy, or religious freedom or domination.
Groups of this persuasion see race as the defining characteristic of a society and therefore a basis of solidity.
The extreme loyalty and devotion to a nation and the national consciousness derived from placing one nation‘s interests and cultural norms above those of other nation or group. Members are often extremely paranoid.
Dedicated to the overthrow of an established order and replacing it with a new political or social structure.
Ideologies are concerned with the structure and organization of the forms of government and communities.
Terrorists see their objectives as holy writ and therefore infallible and non-negotiable.
Frequently this is referred to as “single issue” or “special interest” terrorism. Environmental and anti-abortion groups are examples.
These terrorists are “home-grown” and operate within and against their home country. They are frequently tied to extreme social or political factions within a particular society and focus their efforts specifically on their nations, real or perceived socio-political issues.
A.
Religious
B.
Social
C.
Nationalistic
D.
Revolutionary
E.
Political
F.
Separatist
G.
Ethnocentric
H.
Domestic
QUESTION 31
Which terrorist methodology is the most commonly used tactic?
A.
Hijackings and Skyjackings.
B.
Arsons and Firebombings.
C.
Armed Attacks and Assassinations.
D.
Kidnappings and Hostage-Takings.
E.
Bombings.
QUESTION 32
Which U.S. act dramatically reduced restrictions on law enforcement’s ability to search all types of electronic records; eased restrictions on foreign intelligence gathering; expanded the U.S. government’s authority to regulate financial transactions and broadened the discretion of immigration authorities in detaining and deporting immigrants suspected of terrorism-related acts?
A.
USA PATRIOT Act.
B.
Homeland Security Act (HSA) of 2002.
C.
The Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act of 2004.
D.
The 2006 National Strategy for Combating Terrorism.
QUESTION 33
Of the five types of Serial Killers discussed which type displays no psychosis to the outside world, while on the inside the killer has a need to rid the outside world of what he considers immoral or unworthy? This type of killer will select a certain group of individuals to kill.
A.
Lust Killer
B.
Gain Killer
C.
Visionary Killer
D.
Mission Killer
E.
Thrill/Power Killer
QUESTION 34
Of the five types of Serial Killers discussed which type is considered insane or psychotic? They often hear voices in their head telling them to commit the crime. They may also see visions.
A.
Lust Killer
B.
Gain Killer
C.
Visionary Killer
D.
Mission Killer
E.
Thrill/Power Killer
QUESTION 35
Of the five types of Serial Killers discussed which type Type-This type is in it for the fun. This killer gets a high from killing? He/she is very sadistic and kills for excitement.
A.
Lust Killer
B.
Gain Killer
C.
Visionary Killer
D.
Mission Killer
E.
Thrill/Power Killer
QUESTION 36
Of the five types of Serial Killers discussed which type kills for the pure turn-on? The amount of pleasure the killer derives depends on how much they torture their victim. The more heinous the torture, the more aroused they become. This type is in touch with reality.
A.
Lust Killer
B.
Gain Killer
C.
Visionary Killer
D.
Mission Killer
E.
Thrill/Power Killer
QUESTION 37
Of the five types of Serial Killers discussed which type is in it for profit? This killer hopes to make a profit by killing through cost cutting or insurance claims
A.
Lust Killer
B.
Gain Killer
C.
Visionary Killer
D.
Mission Killer
E.
Thrill/Power Killer
